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시험 번호/코드: ST0-12W
시험 이름: Symantec (Veritas Cluster Server 5 for Windows (STS))
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NO.1 You are designing a high availability solution for an important new application and you are in the
process of identifying single points of failure in the design. What are two possible single points of failure
that can be addressed by Veritas Cluster Server? (Choose two.)
A. network
B. stor~ge
C. processors
D. memory
E. environment
Answer:A,B

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NO.2 What is the Veritas Cluster Server service that maintains resource configuration and state
information?
A. h~d
B. hastate
C. haconf
D.hacf
Answer: A

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NO.3 A service group with the FaiioverPolicy set to Priority has a fault and is failing over. The group fail over
to the system with the __ .
A. lowest as siqne d value in the groups SystemList
B. highest assigned value in the groups SystemList
C. lowest number of service groups currently online
D. highest available capacity in the groups SystemList
Answer:A

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NO.4 You have two of three systems in a cluster up and running Veritas Cluster Server. When the third
system starts, it finds that it has a valid Veritas Cluster Server configuration file. This configuration is
different than the one on the first two systems.
How does Veritas Cluster Server handle this situation?
A. It will use the configur~tion from the first two systems.
B. It will use the configuration from the third system.
C. It will integrate the files to resolve the differences.
D. The third node will be unable to start.
Answer:A

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NO.5 You have one of three systems in a cluster up and running Veritas Cluster Server. When the second
system starts, it finds that it has a valid Veritas Cluster Server configuration file. This configuration is
different than the one on the first system.
What happens?
A. Verltas Cluster Server uses the one from the first system.
B. Veritas Cluster Server uses the one from the second system.
C. Veritas Cluster Server will integrate the files.
D. Veritas Cluster Server will wait for the third system.
Answer:A

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NO.6 What are two valid settings for the ManageFaults service group attibute? (Choose two.) A . All
B. None
C.Priority
D. MonitorOnly
E. Manual
Answer: A,B,

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NO.7 Where are configuration changes maintained in a running Veritas Cluster Server cluster?
A. memory on ~II systems
B. disk on all systems
C. memory on quorum system
D. disk on quorum system
Answer:A

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NO.8 Several application service groups require their own virtuallP addresses to share a single NIC on each
system in a cluster. Which agent reduces the overhead associated with monitoring the NIC’ s
status?
A. proxy
B. MultiNICB
C. NIC
D. phantom
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which characteristic must an application have in order to be managed by Veritas Cluster Server?
A. It must be re startable to ~ known state after failure and tattover.
B. It must be startable by a user other than the system account.
C. It must be a stateless application.
D. It must be capable of running on all systems simultaneously.
Answer:A

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NO.10 Which three elements must be moved from the failed server to the takeover server for network users to
resume access to the database when a failover occurs? (Choose three.)
A. the vtrtuat ts address
B. the set of processes
C. the Ethernet address
D. the public key
E. the disk group
Answer:A,B,E

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NO.11 Which Symantec product feature or attribute allows for the same application to be started
simultaneously on different systems?
A. parallet service groups
B. Veritas FlashSnap
C. the online local dependency
D. the parallelstart group attribute
Answer:A

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NO.12 A process is manually shut down to test an automatic failover of a configured Process resource. The
service group then fails over to another system. What should be cleared before bringing the service group
back to the system on which the test was originally conducted?
A. resource
B. attribute
C. cluster
D. system
Answer:A

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NO.13 Which two tasks can be performed to improve the overall fault tolerance of a Veritas Cluster Server
cluster? (Choose two.)
A. connect e ach system in the cluster to separate power sources DB. mirror the os disk of e ach system
in the cluster
C. connect a tape drive to each system in the cluster
D. add a local disk array to each system in the cluster
E. add CPUs to each node in the cluster
Answer:A,B

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NO.14 You want to validate operation after installing, configuring, and starting Veritas Cluster Server. Which
two GAB ports should be shown as running? (Choose two.)
A. a
B. c
C. h
D. S
E. V
Answer:A,C

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NO.15 You are modifying the cluster configuration while the cluster is stopped. You have edited and verified
the main.cf file on system SysA. Which command do you use to start the cluster with the new
configuration on system SysA?
A. hastart
B. haclus -rebuild .Imain .cr
C. hasys ?start SysA
D. hareconfig
Answer:A

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NO.16 You are tasked with making an existing production system highly available with Veritas Cluster Server.
You have already verified that the hardware is compatible with Veritas Cluster Server. You are now
evaluating the software on the systems for Veritas Cluster Server compatibility.
What must be verified for Veritas Cluster Server compatibility?
A. the oper~ting system version
B. the volume management software version
C. the NIC driver version
D. the file system version
Answer:A

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NO.17 What are three possible types of Veritas Cluster Server service groups? (Choose three.)
A. Failover
B. Hybrid
C. Parallel
D. Singlenode
E. OnOnly
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.18 What is the Veritas Cluster Server term for how a system joining an existing cluster retrieves the cluster
configuration?
A. remote build
B. local build
C. onetime build
D. initial build
Answer:A

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NO.19 Which command do you use to change a service group attribute in a running cluster?
A. h~grp ?modify
B. hagrp ?change
C. hamodify ?group
D. hamodify ?attribute
Answer:A

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NO.20 Four servers available for clustering are located in two buildings. Each building contains two servers
and the servers are on the same network. There are two disk arrays to which all four servers have shared
data access. Which type of cluster topology is required?
A. campus cluster
B. global cluster
C. shared nothing cluster
D. split brain cluster
Answer:A

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시험 번호/코드: ST0-94X
시험 이름: Symantec (Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for UNIX(STS))
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NO.1 Which component of Veritas Storage Foundation virtualizes storage?
A. File System
B. Volume Manager
C. Cluster Server
D. Volume Replicator
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which two circumstances justify moving a disk group from Server A to Server B? (Select two.)
A. Server A is having hardware problems.
B. The volumes on Server B are redundant.
C. Server B offers better performance than Server A.
D. The volumes on Server A are concatenated.
E. Server B has no access to the SAN.
Answer: AE

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NO.3 Which command should be used to lock a mounted vxfs file system?
A. fsck
B. mountlock
C. vxedit
D. fsadm
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which type of storage virtualization is Veritas Storage Foundation?
A. network-based
B. storage-based
C. host-based
D. direct-based
Answer: C

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NO.5 What does storage virtualization create?
A. additional storage space
B. more processing power
C. an abstraction layer above physical storage
D. more virtual memory
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which Storage Foundation utility is used to generate random read and random write work loads so that
the performance of a file system can be analyzed?
A. vxbench
B. vxtrace
C. vxstat
D. vmstat
Answer: A

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NO.7 Refer to the exhibit.
What can the administrator determine about the layout of the volume described in the 'vxprint' output
provided in the exhibit?
A. The volume is striped across six disks.
B. The volume is mirrored with two plexes striped across three columns.
C. The volume is layered with two sub-volumes mirrored across three disks.
D. The volume is mirrored with three plexes striped across two columns.
Answer: B

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NO.8 An administrator wants to use the Veritas Enterprise Administrator GUI to manage Veritas Storage
Foundation from a remote system.
Which two services must be running on the Veritas Storage Foundation server? (Select two.)
A. vxconfigd
B. vxservice
C. vea
D. vxsvc
E. vxsvcctrl
Answer: BD

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NO.9 Which scenario requires host-based storage virtualization?
A. A server needs access to network-attached storage.
B. Servers with different operating systems need to access a single disk array.
C. Multiple servers need to access a single disk array.
D. A server needs to mirror data across disk arrays from different vendors.
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which two features are available only with Storage Foundation Enterprise? (Select two.)
A. Cross-platform Data Sharing (CDS)
B. Dynamic Storage Tiering (DST)
C. Veritas Operations Manager (VOM)
D. Dynamic Multipathing (DMP)
E. ability to import LUN snapshots
Answer: AB

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NO.11 Which command displays the number of paths for disk hds9500-alua0_57?
A. vxdisk -p list hds9500-alua0_57
B. vxdisk scandisk hds9500-alua0_57
C. vxdmpadm list hds9500-alua0_57
D. vxdisk list hds9500-alua0_57
Answer: D

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NO.12 What is a primary advantage of the concatenation type of volume layout?
A. better free space utilization
B. improved performance
C. automatic load balancing
D. improved availability
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which type of storage virtualization presents disks from multiple arrays and multiple vendors virtually
to one or more servers?
A. host-based
B. network-based
C. storage-based
D. web-based
Answer: B

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NO.14 An administrator sets up site awareness on a host, and wants to verify that everything is set up
correctly.
Which command should they execute to break off one of the sites to verify the configuration?
A. vxbreak site
B. vxfiredrill
C. vxdg detachsite
D. vxsite detach
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which Veritas Volume Manager daemon monitors changes to the disk group configuration data and
automatically saves to a file any configuration changes that occur?
A. vxconfigd
B. vxrelocd
C. vxconfigbackupd
D. vxiod
Answer: C

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시험 번호/코드: ST0-099
시험 이름: Symantec (Symantec Enterprise Vault 9.0(STS))
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NO.1 A backup administrator needs to protect the Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange server
environment. In order to perform a point-in-time recovery of the database, what must be backed up daily?
A. the EnterpriseVaultDirectory SQL database
B. the SQL transaction logs
C. the SQL databases
D. the EnterpriseVaultAuditing SQL database
Answer: B

Symantec인증   ST0-099기출문제   ST0-099

NO.2 A backup administrator needs to protect the Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange server
environment. On which context menu in the Vault Admin Console does the administrator set and clear the
vault store backup mode?
A. the Enterprise Vault database
B. the Enterprise Vault services
C. the Enterprise Vault server
D. the Enterprise Vault site
Answer: D

Symantec   ST0-099 dumps   ST0-099시험문제   ST0-099시험문제   ST0-099

NO.3 An organization is debating which Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange Outlook client to deploy
to end users. Which two features can be used if the HTTP-only Outlook Add-In is deployed? (Select two.)
A. Users can choose which archives to store items in.
B. Users can restore items to the Restored Items folder.
C. Users can use Vault Cache.
D. Users can cancel Pending Items.
E. Users can store and classify items with retention categories.
Answer: C, D

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NO.4 An organization needs to move all PST files into Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange (EV 9).
Their users require constant access to their PST files during the migration. What is the recommended
migration method?
A. Client-Driven PST Migration
B. Locate and Migrate PST Migration
C. PST Migration Wizard
D. EVPM Scripted Migration
Answer: A

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NO.5 A backup administrator needs to protect the Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange server
environment. The administrator has yet to run a backup of the vault store partition. The administrator has
Safety Copy enabled for the Vault Store. Given that the administrator has already performed some
mailbox archiving, what should occur after running the backup for the first time and clearing the archive
bit?
A. The safety copies are removed from the Exchange store.
B. The safety copies are removed from the storage queues.
C. The safety copies are flagged for removal for the next Storage Expiry.
D. The safety copies are flagged for removal when the services are restarted.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which task needs to be running for a PST Client-Driven Migration to be successful?
A. PST Client Task
B. PST Locator Task
C. PST Migrator Task
D. PST Collector Task
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which feature delegation must be set to Read/Write in Internet Information Services (IIS 7.0) before
installing Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange Outlook Web Access (OWA) Extensions?
A. .NET Trust Levels
B. .NET Roles
C. Failed Request Tracing Rules
D. IPv4 Address and Domain Restrictions
Answer: D

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NO.8 What is the minimum version of the .NET framework required on the Enterprise Vault Server for
Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange?
A. .NET 4.0
B. .NET 3.5 SP1
C. .NET 1.1 and 2.0
D. .NET 2.0 and 3.0 SP2
Answer: B

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NO.9 An organization enables Outlook Anywhere (RPC over HTTP) for mobile users so users can retrieve
archived email through Outlook without being connected to a VPN. When end users who use this new
functionality try to restore an item, they are no longer prompted for where they want the item to be
restored. What is the reason for this change in behavior?
A. The system administrator has disabled custom restore locations in the policy.
B. The Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange Outlook Add-In is using HTTP-only functionality.
C. The policy RPC over HTTP Restrictions is set to Disable User Extensions.
D. The policy RPC over HTTP Restrictions is set to Disable Offline Vault.
Answer: B

Symantec시험문제   ST0-099인증   ST0-099   ST0-099 dump   ST0-099 dump

NO.10 A large enterprise organization requires Enterprise Vault Operations Manager. The company will have
five Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange (EV 9) sites and three EV Directories. How many
monitoring databases should be planned?
A. 1
B. 3
C. 5
D. 8
Answer: B

Symantec   ST0-099 dump   ST0-099기출문제

NO.11 An administrator needs to migrate a large number of PST files located in users' Outlook profiles and on
a shared drive. Which two PST migration methods will accomplish this? (Select two.)
A. Client-Driven Migration
B. Server-Driven Migration
C. PST Migration Wizard
D. Locate-Migrate Wizard
E. Automatic Migration
Answer: A, B

Symantec   ST0-099   ST0-099   ST0-099

NO.12 What are two physical data storage components of Mailbox Archiving in Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for
Exchange? (Select two.)
A. Indexes
B. Archives
C. Vault Store Group
D. Vault Store Partitions
E. Enterprise Vault Collector
Answer: A, D

Symantec   ST0-099   ST0-099최신덤프

NO.13 Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange converts mail message attachments to text or HTML. What
is a benefit of changing the default conversion type to text instead of HTML for certain document types
A. increases the performance of file conversion
B. allows for the support of additional document types
C. increases the performance of searching
D. significantly reduces the amount of space taken by indexing
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which information is held in the Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange (EV 9) Directory Database?
A. archived items
B. configuration data for an EV 9 site
C. configuration information of indexed data
D. storage location of single instanced items
Answer: B

Symantec   ST0-099시험문제   ST0-099   ST0-099   ST0-099

NO.15 An administrator is installing Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange (EV 9). Where should the
administrator place the EV 9 databases and log files?
A. in the installation directory of the SQL server
B. on separate physical disks of the EV server
C. on separate physical disks of the SQL server
D. on direct attached storage of the EV server
Answer: C

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NO.16 Refer to the exhibit.
On the Exchange Policy Properties page, which two items will be archived using the policy shown in the
exhibit? (Select two.)
A.all items older than four weeks
B. all items larger than 1 MB
C. all items older than four weeks and larger than 1 MB
D. all items older than three months
E. all items older than four weeks and smaller than 1 MB
Answer: C, D

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NO.17 Provided that appropriate options are set for users, which two actions can users perform on the Details
tab of the Vault Cache Properties dialog box? (Select two.)
A. view header and content synchronization status
B. start synchronization
C. disable synchronization
D. reverse synchronization
E. edit header and content synchronization categories
Answer: A, B

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NO.18 An administrator is setting up Exchange managed folders and needs to apply the same retention
settings to Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange (EV 9). Which action needs to happen to force EV 9
to synchronize the managed folder retentions?
A. in Desktop Folder policy, advanced settings, change the Archived Exchanged Managed Folders to
Normal
B. in Desktop policy, advanced settings, change the Archived Exchanged Managed Folders to Managed
C. in Mailbox policy, advanced settings, change the Archived Exchanged Managed Folders to Managed
D. in Mailbox policy, advanced settings, change the Archived Exchanged Managed Folders to Normal
Answer: C

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NO.19 What are two benefits of enabling Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange (EV 9) for Outlook Web
Access users? (Select two.)
A. offloads Archiving Task from EV 9 server
B. provides remote access to multiple user archives
C. enables remote access to archived public folder items
D. extracts mail from the Exchange Server
E. runs independent of EV 9 services
Answer: B, C

Symantec   ST0-099   ST0-099 dump

NO.20 A company is considering Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange for archiving their Exchange
systems. Personnel at the company are having trouble understanding the differences between their
existing backup environment and a separate archiving environment. Which two differentiate archiving
from a backup system? (Select two.)
A. provides retention periods for individual sets of data
B. requires operator intervention to perform a data restore request
C. provides duplicate copies for disaster recovery purposes
D. ingests data from the Exchange store to the archive storage layer
E. enables fast restore capabilities for mission critical data
Answer: A, D

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시험 번호/코드: ST0-100
시험 이름: Symantec (Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Domino Technical)
당신이 구입하기 전에 시도
일년동안 무료 업데이트
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100% 합격율 보장
Q&A: 132 문항
업데이트: 2013-12-29

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NO.1 Symantec Enterprise Vault sites are grouped under which Symantec Enterprise Vault container?
A. Directory
B. Targets
C. Archives
D. Domains
Answer: C

Symantec dump   ST0-100   ST0-100   ST0-100

NO.2 When the Deployment Scanner is used for troubleshooting a Symantec Enterprise Vault
environment, which two of these tests are performed? (Select two.)
A. mail file permissions
B. Domino server permissions
C. registry settings
D. Domino server versions
E. Domino template versions
Answer: C,D

Symantec   ST0-100인증   ST0-100기출문제   ST0-100

NO.3 Which two are prerequisites for installing Symantec Enterprise Vault (EV) Reporting? (Select two.)
A. grant dbreader rights in Microsoft SQL server to the default EV Domino Admin role
B. install Microsoft Active Server Pages .NET 3.0 SP3 on the EV server
C. install Microsoft SQL Reporting Services on the SQL Reporting server
D. give the Vault Service Account the Content Manager role on the Microsoft SQL Reporting server
E. add the Vault Service Account to the Local Administrators group on the SQL Reporting server
Answer: C,D

Symantec   ST0-100최신덤프   ST0-100   ST0-100 pdf

NO.4 Which connection type is used to archive messages from mail files?
A. IMAP
B. NRPC
C. MAPI
D. SMTP
Answer: B

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NO.5 What are two primary physical data-storage components of Domino Mailbox Archiving in
Symantec Enterprise Vault? (Select two.)
A. Indexes
B. Archives
C. Vault Store partitions
D. IIS configuration data
E. Shopping Basket
Answer: A,C

Symantec   ST0-100 pdf   ST0-100시험문제

NO.6 Which two Symantec Enterprise Vault features reduce the storage requirements needed by a company
to maintain information? (Select two.)
A. data compression
B. collections on archived data
C. Optimized Single Instance Storage
D. storage on WORM devices
E. item conversion to HTML
Answer: A,C

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NO.7 Implementation of Symantec Enterprise Vault follows a specific sequential process after prerequisites
are met. The first three steps in this process include: run the Deployment Scanner, run the Software Install,
and run the Configuration Wizard. What is the fourth step in the process?
A. run the Domino Configuration Wizard
B. run the Getting Started Wizard
C. run the Archiving Configuration Wizard
D. run the Provisioning Wizard
E. run the Storage Configuration Wizard
Answer: B

Symantec자료   ST0-100기출문제   ST0-100   ST0-100덤프

NO.8 Did you participate in formal Symantec training for this exam? If so, please select the type of training
that you completed. (Select all that apply.)
A. Instructor-led classroom
B. Virtual instructor-led classroom
C. eLearning / web-based training
D. Symantec-hosted webcast
E. Distributor or reseller-hosted webcast
F. Field / Real-world experience
G. Other
Answer: A,B

Symantec   ST0-100시험문제   ST0-100기출문제   ST0-100

NO.9 What should be done before running the Enterprise Vault Reports Configuration tool?
A. create the Enterprise Vault Reporting SQL database
B. stop IIS
C. add the Vault Service Account to the DomainAdmins group
D. create an ordinary Active Directory user account to be used by Enterprise Vault Reporting
Answer: D

Symantec   ST0-100   ST0-100덤프   ST0-100시험문제   ST0-100

NO.10 What are two reasons for adopting Symantec Enterprise Vault to manage unstructured content?
(Select two.)
A. to protect messaging infrastructure to ensure uptime and productivity
B. to enable corporate discovery and end-user search
C. to centralize information management and retention
D. to create and retain snapshots to facilitate instant recovery
E. to enforce compliance with endpoint security policies
Answer: B,C

Symantec   ST0-100   ST0-100   ST0-100   ST0-100   ST0-100

NO.11 Which two SQL databases are directly associated with storage in Symantec Enterprise Vault?
A. Directory and Monitoring
B. Partition and Vault Store
C. Directory and Vault Store
D. Fingerprint and Vault Store
Answer: D

Symantec최신덤프   ST0-100   ST0-100

NO.12 What is a benefit of archiving Domino user mail files?
A. makes email highly available
B. provides a compliance copy of email
C. prevents users from deleting email
D. enables efficient search and retrieval of email
Answer: D

Symantec자격증   ST0-100   ST0-100   ST0-100 dumps

NO.13 Which two of the following are created by the Symantec Enterprise Vault Configuration wizard? (Select
two.)
A. Index locations
B. Vault Directory database
C. Services on the Enterprise Vault server
D. Domino archives
E. Vault store databases
Answer: B,C

Symantec   ST0-100최신덤프   ST0-100시험문제   ST0-100   ST0-100

NO.14 Which two additions are made to the notes.ini of the Symantec Enterprise Vault Domino Gateway
(EVDG) server after installing Symantec Enterprise Vault? (Select two.)
A. ServerTasks=EVDominoHousekeeping
B. ServerTasks=EVDominoEM
C. ExtMgr_Addins=EVDominoEM.dll
D. ExtMgr_Addins=EVDominoHousekeeping.dll
E. ExtMgr_Addins=EVDominoHousekeeping
Answer: A,C

Symantec   ST0-100 dump   ST0-100

NO.15 Which action is necessary to run DTrace from within the Vault Administration Console?
A. enable Traces from the Site Properties
B. enable debug from the Site Properties
C. install DTrace.exe on the Symantec Enterprise Vault server
D. enable Advanced Features
Answer: D

Symantec   ST0-100자료   ST0-100자격증   ST0-100

NO.16 A user is unable to log in to search the archived mail. Which step can be taken to correct the problem?
A. re-enable the mailbox
B. refresh the design
C. reset the Internet password
D. reset the Domino password
Answer: C

Symantec pdf   ST0-100   ST0-100   ST0-100시험문제   ST0-100 dump

NO.17 After running the Symantec Enterprise Vault Configuration Wizard, which of these services are running
when viewed from the Vault Administration Console? (Select two.)
A. Enterprise Vault Indexing Service
B. Enterprise Vault Administration Service
C. Enterprise Vault Directory Service
D. Enterprise Vault Domino Archiving Service
E. Enterprise Vault Task Controller Service
Answer: A,E

Symantec덤프   ST0-100 dumps   ST0-100

NO.18 A company will have five Symantec Enterprise Vault (EV) sites and three EV Directories. How many
Monitoring databases should be planned?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 5
Answer: C

Symantec자격증   ST0-100   ST0-100   ST0-100최신덤프   ST0-100

NO.19 What tool can be installed to check that all pre-requisites have been correctly configured?
A. Enterprise Vault Compatibility Checker
B. Enterprise Vault Deployment Scanner
C. SystemCheck.exe
D. Microsoft System Information tool
Answer: B

Symantec   ST0-100   ST0-100 pdf

NO.20 Which process requires that the Enterprise Vault Domino Gateway (EVDG) be installed in the
environment?
A. Mailfile archiving
B. Lotus Notes access to archived items
C. Enterprise Vault Administrator access to Domino configuration
D. Journal archiving
Answer: B

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시험 번호/코드: ASC-093
시험 이름: Symantec (ASC Data Loss Prevention 2010)
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NO.1 Symantec Data Loss Prevention can be configured to populate custom attributes pulled from a
Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) server. In addition to LiveLdapLookup.properties, which
other file must be modified to configure custom attributes.?
A. Plugins.properties
B. Manager.properties
C. Jdbc.properties
D. Aggregator.properties
Answer: A

Symantec   ASC-093인증   ASC-093자료   ASC-093최신덤프

NO.2 A user has determined that many incidents are showing 100 matches per incident from the default PCI
policy template. The user needs to increase this limit to better reflect the most critical files with the most
violations. Which change will increase the number of maximum matches per incident?
A. change the value for DI.MaxViolations
B. change the value for IncidentDetection.patternConditionMaxViolations
C. change the value for EDM.MaximumNumberOfMatchesToReturn
D. change the value for Incident Threshold within the relevant policy
Answer: A

Symantec   ASC-093   ASC-093 dumps   ASC-093자격증

NO.3 Endpoint agents CANNOT monitor data copies to what?
A. CD/DVD
B. network shares
C. USB (for example, thumb drives)
D. printers/faxes
Answer: B

Symantec   ASC-093   ASC-093   ASC-093 dumps

NO.4 Data Loss Prevention (DLP) Network Prevent supports load balancing among multiple Prevent servers
in high volume networks. In the absence of a network load balancing device, what is the best practice for
enabling load balance among multiple Prevent servers?
A. enable Load Balancing in the Settings, Servers Overview page
B. In the case of Network Prevent for Email, the upstream MTA is configured with the IP address of each
Prevent server. This is done in a similar fashion for the web proxy server(s) with the IP address of each
Network Prevent for web server.
C. A third Network Interface Card (NIC) is required for each Prevent server to be used as a "heartbeat
monitor" to the other Prevent servers. Once installed and configured, the Prevent servers act as a virtual
cluster.
D. configure a DNS alias to point to the IP address of each Prevent server, also known as a DNS Round
Robin
Answer: D

Symantec   ASC-093 dump   ASC-093   ASC-093

NO.5 What needs to be done with unused Network Interface Cards (NIC) on the Enforce server?
A. They need to be configured to utilize Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP).
B. They need to be disabled.
C. They need to be configured with a static IP address.
D. They need to be assigned with 127.0.0.1 as their IP address.
Answer: B

Symantec   ASC-093 pdf   ASC-093덤프

NO.6 If an Enforce server is configured to use Active Directory (AD) authentication for logins, which statement
is true?
A. Any user that has an account in AD can log in to Enforce as long as they have been assigned a role.
B. Any user that has an account in AD can log in to Enforce as long as they have been added to the
krb5.ini or krb5.conf file.
C. Any user that has an account in AD can log in to Enforce as long as their Organizational Unit has been
assigned to a Policy Group.
D. Any user that has an account in AD can log in to Enforce as long as they have a matching user name in
Enforce.
Answer: D

Symantec최신덤프   ASC-093기출문제   ASC-093 dumps   ASC-093   ASC-093

NO.7 Data Loss Prevention (DLP) can use custom SSL certificates to secure communication between the
Endpoint server and Endpoint agents. What is the name of the tool that is used to create these
certificates?
A. endpointssl.exe
B. endpointkeytool.exe
C. sslkeytool.exe
D. endpointsslkey.exe
Answer: B

Symantec   ASC-093   ASC-093   ASC-093최신덤프

NO.8 When implementing an automated response rule, what must be done to make the rule execute?
A. select Incident All and click the Response Rule button to execute
B. enable response rules from the Settings page
C. add the response rule to the appropriate policy
D. Automated response rules are effective as soon as they are created
Answer: C

Symantec   ASC-093자격증   ASC-093   ASC-093자격증

NO.9 What is the best method for deploying a policy to Endpoint agents that makes use of Index Matching.
A. create the policy using Described Content, then "and" the Index Matching statement into the policy
B. Policies that use Index Matching cannot be deployed to Endpoint agents.
C. create the policy using the Index Matching statement, then "and" a Described Content statement into
the policy
D. combine all Index Matching statements that are to be deployed to Endpoint agents into one single
policy
Answer: A

Symantec   ASC-093시험문제   ASC-093자료   ASC-093

NO.10 What is a best practice to be used for monitoring mail traffic in an environment that uses Transport
Layer Security (TLS) for their outbound email?
A. deploy Network Prevent for Email
B. turn TLS off on the outbound email server
C. import the TLS certificate from the outbound email server onto the Network Monitor detection server
D. Data Loss Prevention is not capable of viewing TLS traffic.
Answer: A

Symantec   ASC-093   ASC-093 pdf   ASC-093

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시험 번호/코드: ST0-136
시험 이름: Symantec (Symantec System Recovery 2011 Technical Assessment)
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NO.1 Which command can be run to allow network access to the computer during a Unix-based recovery
from a Symantec Recovery Disk.?
A. network eth0start
B. ifup
C. service network up
D. eth0service restart
Answer: B

Symantec   ST0-136기출문제   ST0-136   ST0-136

NO.2 Which two options are required to enable booting when using the Recover Drive Wizard to restore the
operating system onto a new, empty, hard disk? (Select two)
A. Resize drive
B. Check file system for errors
C. Assign drive letter
D. Restore original disk signature
E. Set drive active
F. Verify recovery point before restore
Answer: D,E

Symantec최신덤프   ST0-136   ST0-136인증   ST0-136기출문제

NO.3 when viewing the backup status of a computer in Symantec System Recovery 2011 Management
Solution, which two Backup, reporting statuses can a user view for the selected drives? (Select two.)
A. Full Status Reporting
B. DriveStatus Reporting
C. Group Status Reporting
D. Backup Status Reporting
E. No Status Reporting
Answer: A,E

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NO.4 how do the client computers process backup policies submitted by the Symantec System Recovery
2011 Management Solution?
A. The Notification Server pushes the backup jobs totheclient computers beforeeachbackup
B. Client computers pun the backup policies down from Notification server and processthem.
C. Client computers run the backup policies from Notification Server and process them,
D. The Notification Server pushes the backup jobs to the client computers every night
Answer: B

Symantec자격증   ST0-136자격증   ST0-136

NO.5 Which software should De installed on the remote client first to be managed by Symantec System
Recovery 2011 (SSR) Management Solution?
A. Symantec SSR software
B. Symantec installation Manager
C. Symantec SSR plug-in
D. Symantec Management (Altiris) Agent
Answer: D

Symantec자료   ST0-136자격증   ST0-136인증   ST0-136인증

NO.6 A system administrator would like to verify whether a recent virus on their network exists In an image
before restoring. What is the recommended method to make the flies available for a virus scan to check
for this?
A. Restore the image to the machine, then run a virus scan.
B. Mount the Image In Windows and run a virus scan.
C. Restore files to an isolated directory using Recovery Point Browser
D. Use Google Desktop to access the files.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which requirement needs to tie met, to create a cold backup from a non-functioning system using the
Symantec Recovery Disk?
A. An active partition must be set
B. A valid license key for Symantec System Recovery 2011 needs to be used.
C. The computer needs to first have Symantec System Recovery 2011 installed.
D. A custom Symantec Recovery Disk needs to be used.
Answer: B

Symantec자료   ST0-136인증   ST0-136   ST0-136   ST0-136기출문제

NO.8 Which command line option would be used to divide a recovery point file into separate parts using
Symantec System Recovery 2011 Linux Edition?
A. -raw [number]
B. -seg (number)
C. -span (number]
D. -set (number]
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which option should be used to convert a recovery point where a FAT32 file system Is the
destination1?
A. Run windows Mint-Setup
B. Utilize temporary storage location
C. Split virtual disk into 2 GB (vmdk) files
D. Rename file to DOS standard
Answer: C

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NO.10 Consider the command syntax below
ssr -r <file> -d <destination>
What does the switch -r accomplish in Symantec System Recovery 2011 Linux Edition?
A. searches the recovery point for a specific file
B. restoresthespecified file to a location
C. lists the partition and file types In the recovery point
D. reboots the computer when the restore is complete
Answer: D

Symantec   ST0-136   ST0-136인증   ST0-136자격증

NO.11 An administrator of the Symantec System Recovery 2011 (SSR) Management Solution needs to
determine which managed client computers have an unsupported version of SSR installed.
Which web part name of the Home screen would display this for the administrator?
A. Alerts and Failures
B. Backup Status
C. Operating System Statistics
D. License Status
Answer: A

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NO.12 A virus attack has corrupted the first sector of a physical hard drive. Fortunately, a recovery point of the
system drive is available to restore with the Symantec Recovery Disk.
Which option must be selected during the restore?
A. Restore master boot record
B. Use Restore Anyware
C. Check for file system errors after recovery
D. Verify recovery point before recovery
Answer: A

Symantec   ST0-136 pdf   ST0-136   ST0-136

NO.13 To prevent unauthorized access to recovery points when stored on a network share, what should be
enabled in the Job definition?
A. T-10 encryption
B. Pretty GoodPrivacy(PGP) encryption
C. SymantecEndpointEncryption
D. Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) encryption
Answer: A

Symantec pdf   ST0-136기출문제   ST0-136 pdf

NO.14 Which two drive types can be used as the destination drive in die Copy My Hard Drive Wizard? (Select
two)
A. SATA attached hard drive
B. share on a different Windows Server
C. Blu-ray drive
D. network-attached storage
E. USB attached hard drive
Answer: A,E

Symantec덤프   ST0-136시험문제   ST0-136   ST0-136   ST0-136

NO.15 Which wizard should an administrator select from the Symantec Recovery Disk to Degin a Virtual to
Physical conversion?
A. virtual Machine Restore
B. One Time Physical Conversion
C. Convert to Physical
D. Recover My Computer
Answer: D

Symantec   ST0-136자료   ST0-136

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NO.1 How can an administrator validate that once a policy is updated and saved it has been enabled on a
specific detection server?
A. check the status of the policy on the policy list page
B. check to see whether the policy was loaded under System > Servers > Alerts
C. check the policy and validate the date and time it was last updated
D. check to see whether the policy was loaded under System > Servers > Events
Answer: D

Symantec최신덤프   250-511   250-511최신덤프

NO.2 What are two benefits of the Symantec Data Loss Prevention 11 security architecture? (Select two.)
A. Communication is initiated by the detection servers inside the firewall.
B. SSL communication is used for user access to the Enforce Platform.
C. Endpoint Agent to Endpoint Server communication uses the Triple Data Encryption Standard (Triple
DES).
D. Confidential information captured by system components is stored using Advanced Encryption
Standards (AES) symmetric keys.
E. All indexed data uploaded into the Enforce Platform is protected with a two-way hash.
Answer: B,D

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NO.3 Which Network Discover option is used to determine whether confidential data exists without having to
scan the entire target?
A. Byte Throttling
B. File Throttling
C. Match Thresholds
D. Inventory Mode Scanning
Answer: D

Symantec시험문제   250-511   250-511덤프

NO.4 Which DLP Agent task is unique to the Symantec Management Platform and is unavailable through
the Enforce console?
A. Change Endpoint server
B. Restart agent
C. Pull agent logs
D. Set log level
Answer: D

Symantec최신덤프   250-511   250-511기출문제

NO.5 A user is unable to log in as sysadmin. The Data Loss Prevention system is configured to use Active
Directory authentication. The user is a member of two roles, sysadmin and remediator. How should the
user log in to the user interface in the sysadmin role?
A. sysadmin\username@domain
B. sysadmin\username
C. domain\username
D. sysadmin\username\domain
Answer: B

Symantec   250-511시험문제   250-511   250-511시험문제   250-511   250-511

NO.6 The database is full and the Incident Persister is unable to process incidents. Which two file types
could be present in Vontu/protect/incidents? (Select two.)
A. .idx
B. .edc
C. .idc
D. .inc
E. .bad
Answer: C,E

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NO.7 What must a policy manager do when working with Exact Data Matching (EDM) indexes?
A. re-index large data sources on a daily or weekly basis
B. index the original data source on the detection server
C. deploy the index only to specific detection servers
D. create a new data profile if data source schema changes
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which two policy management actions can result in a reduced number of incidents for a given traffic
flow? (Select two.)
A. adding additional component matching to the rule
B. adding data owner exceptions
C. deploying to additional detection servers
D. increasing condition match count
E. adding additional severities
Answer: B,D

Symantec pdf   250-511   250-511   250-511

NO.9 A divisional executive requests a report of all incidents generated by a particular region, summarized
by department. What must be populated to generate this report?
A. remediation attributes
B. sender correlations
C. status groups
D. custom attributes
Answer: D

Symantec덤프   250-511   250-511   250-511

NO.10 Where should the Network Discover detection server be placed in a corporate network architecture?
A. inside the DMZ
B. on the same virtual LAN as the proxy server
C. inside the corporate network
D. on the same switch as the Oracle database server
Answer: C

Symantec자료   250-511   250-511   250-511 pdf

NO.11 Which product provides support for the Citrix XenApp virtualization platform?
A. Endpoint Prevent
B. Network Discover
C. Network Protect
D. Network Prevent
Answer: A

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NO.12 An administrator is running a Discover Scanner target scan and the scanner is unable to communicate
back to the Discover Server. Where will the files be stored?
A. Discover Server incoming folder
B. scanner's outgoing folder
C. scanner's incoming folder
D. Enforce incident persister
Answer: B

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NO.13 What is a feature of keyword proximity matching?
A. It will match on whole keywords only.
B. It has a maximum distance between keywords of 99.
C. It only matches on message body.
D. It evaluates each keyword pair independently.
Answer: D

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NO.14 To manually troubleshoot DLP Agent issues, the database and log viewer tools must be executed in
which location?
A. in the same location as the dcs.ead file location
B. in the same location as the cg.ead file location
C. in the same location as the ks.ead file location
D. in the same location as the is.ead file location
Answer: C

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NO.15 After installing several new DLP Agents, the Data Loss Prevention administrator discovers that none of
the endpoint agents are appearing on the Agent Overview page. After refreshing the page several times,
and determining that the equipment is powered on and connected to the network, the Agent Overview
page still fails to display the new agents. What is a possible cause for this issue?
A. The DLP Agents need to be added manually through the Symantec Management Platform.
B. The DLP Agents were installed with the incorrect Endpoint server IP address.
C. The assigned Endpoint server needs to be recycled in order to detect the new DLP Agents.
D. The Endpoint Location is set to "Manually" instead of "Automatically" in the Enforce user interface.
Answer: B

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NO.16 A role is configured for XML export and a user executes the export XML incident action. What must be
done before history information is included in the export?
A. A remediator must take an action on the incident.
B. History must be enabled as a tab or panel in the incident snapshot layout.
C. Incident history must be enabled in the user's role.
D. The manager.properties must be configured for XML export.
Answer: C

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NO.17 Which two functions of the communications architecture ensure that the system will automatically
recover if a network connectivity failure occurs between the detection servers and the Enforce Server?
(Select two.)
A. Oracle database backup
B. detection server autonomous monitoring
C. Enforce Server offline alert notification
D. detection server incident queuing
E. detection server alert archiving
Answer: B,D

Symantec pdf   250-511   250-511최신덤프

NO.18 A company needs to scan all of its file shares on a weekly basis to make sure sensitive data is being
stored correctly. The total volume of data on the file servers is greater than 1 TB. Which approach will
allow the company to quickly scan all of this data on a weekly basis?
A. run an initial complete scan of all the file shares, then modify the scan target to add date filters and
exclude any files created or modified before the initial scan was run
B. run an initial complete scan of all the file shares, then modify the scan target to an incremental scan
type
C. create a separate scan target for each file share and exclude files accessed before the start of each
scan
D. run an initial complete scan of all file shares, create a summary report of all incidents created by the
scan, then run weekly scans and compare incidents from weekly scans to incidents from the complete
scan
Answer: B

Symantec   250-511   250-511

NO.19 Which two remediation actions are available for Network Protect? (Select two.)
A. Copy
B. Move
C. Block
D. Rename
E. Quarantine
Answer: A,E

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NO.20 A Data Loss Prevention administrator notices that several errors occurred during a Network Discover
scan. Which report can the administrator use to determine exactly which errors occurred and when?
A. Discover Incident report sorted by target name and scan
B. Full Activity report for that particular scan
C. Server Event report from Server Overview
D. Full Statistics report for that particular scan
Answer: B

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시험 이름: Symantec (Administration of Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1)
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NO.1 A company is experiencing a malware outbreak. The company deploys Symantec Endpoint Protection
12.1, with only Virus and Spyware Protection, Application and Device Control, and Intrusion Prevention
technologies. Why would Intrusion Prevention be unable to block all communications from an attacking
host?
A. Intrusion Prevention needs the firewall component to block all traffic from the attacking host.
B. Intrusion Prevention blocks the attack only if the administrator wrote a signature for it.
C. Intrusion Prevention definitions are out-of-date.
D. Intrusion Prevention is set to log only.
Answer: A

Symantec   250-315 dumps   250-315 dumps

NO.2 The fake antivirus family "PC scout" infects systems with a similar method regardless of its variant.
Which SONAR sub-feature can block new variants of the same family, based on sequence of events?
A. artificial intelligence
B. behavioral heuristic
C. human authored signatures
D. behavioral policy lockdown
Answer: C

Symantec인증   250-315자료   250-315기출문제   250-315

NO.3 How can an administrator manage multiple, independent companies from one database while
maintaining independent groups, computers, and policies?
A. Set up limited administrators with appropriate rights.
B. Set up separate domains.
C. Set up additional sites using a single database.
D. Set up separate locations and turn off inheritance.
Answer: B

Symantec자격증   250-315기출문제   250-315자격증

NO.4 According to Symantec, what is a botnet.?
A. systems infected with the same virus strain
B. groups of systems performing remote tasks without the users' knowledge
C. groups of computers configured to steal credit card records
D. compromised systems opening communication to an IRC channel
Answer: B

Symantec최신덤프   250-315최신덤프   250-315 pdf

NO.5 Which component is required in order to run Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 protection
technologies?
A. Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager
B. Symantec Endpoint Protection client
C. LiveUpdate Administrator server
D. Symantec Protection Center
Answer: B

Symantec   250-315   250-315   250-315

NO.6 In addition to performance improvements, which two benefits does Insight provide? (Select two.)
A. reputation scoring for documents
B. zero-day threat detection
C. protection against system file modifications
D. false positive mitigation
E. blocking of malicious websites
Answer: B,D

Symantec   250-315   250-315 pdf   250-315

NO.7 Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 component provides services to improve the performance
of virtual client scanning?
A. Shared Insight Cache server
B. LiveUpdate Administrator server
C. Symantec Protection Center
D. Group Update Provider
Answer: A

Symantec   250-315   250-315기출문제   250-315

NO.8 A company with one site has a factory with computers in the manufacturing area. Both factory
managers and operators need to log in to these shared computers. Different policies will be applied
depending on whether the individual logging in to the machine is a manager or an operator. Which
Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 feature provides this ability?
A. Computer mode
B. Active Directory synchronization
C. User mode
D. Console authentication
Answer: C

Symantec자격증   250-315인증   250-315 dump

NO.9 Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 protection technology provides the primary protection layers
against zero-day network attacks?
A. SONAR
B. Client Firewall
C. Intrusion Prevention
D. System Lockdown
Answer: C

Symantec시험문제   250-315자료   250-315   250-315자료

NO.10 Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 component improves performance because known good
files are skipped?
A. LiveUpdate Administrator server
B. Group Update Provider
C. Shared Insight Cache server
D. Central Quarantine server
Answer: C

Symantec   250-315   250-315   250-315 dump

NO.11 Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 component provides single-sign-on to the Symantec
Endpoint Protection Manager and other products, along with cross-product reporting?
A. Symantec Reporting server
B. Symantec Security Information Manager
C. IT Analytics
D. Symantec Protection Center
Answer: D

Symantec   250-315시험문제   250-315   250-315 dump   250-315기출문제   250-315인증

NO.12 Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 component uses reputation to evaluate a file?
A. Shared Insight Cache server
B. Symantec Endpoint Protection client
C. Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager
D. LiveUpdate Administrator server
Answer: B

Symantec   250-315 dump   250-315   250-315 dumps   250-315 dumps

NO.13 Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 component uses Sybase SQL Anywhere?
A. Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager embedded database
B. Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager remote database
C. LiveUpdate Administrator server
D. Shared Insight Cache server
Answer: A

Symantec인증   250-315   250-315 dump   250-315인증   250-315기출문제

NO.14 An administrator is logged in to the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager (SEPM) console for a
system named SEPM01. The groups and policies that were previously in the SEPM01 console are
unavailable and have been replaced with unfamiliar groups and policies. What was a possible reason for
this change?
A. The administrator was modified from using Computer mode to User mode.
B. The administrator was logged in to the incorrect domain for SEPM01.
C. The administrator was changed from a limited administrator to a system administrator.
D. The administrator was using the Web console instead of the Java console.
Answer: B

Symantec dumps   250-315   250-315   250-315최신덤프

NO.15 How does the Intrusion Prevention System add an additional layer of protection to Network Threat
Protection?
A. It inspects the TCP packet headers and tracks the sequence number.
B. It performs deep packet inspection, reading the packet headers, and data portion.
C. It examines TCP/IP traffic from the application and traces the source of the traffic.
D. It monitors IP datagrams for abnormalities.
Answer: B

Symantec   250-315 pdf   250-315 dumps

NO.16 Drive-by downloads are a common vector of infections. Some of these attacks use encryption to bypass
traditional defense mechanisms. Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 protection technology blocks
such obfuscated attacks?
A. SONAR
B. Bloodhound heuristic virus detection
C. Client Firewall
D. Browser Intrusion Prevention
Answer: D

Symantec pdf   250-315자료   250-315덤프

NO.17 How many Symantec Endpoint Protection Managers can be connected to an embedded database?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 5
D. 10
Answer: A

Symantec   250-315최신덤프   250-315 pdf   250-315최신덤프

NO.18 Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 defense mechanism provides protection against worms like
W32.Silly.FDC, which propagate from system to system through the use of autorun.inf files?
A. Application Control
B. SONAR
C. Client Firewall
D. Exceptions
Answer: A

Symantec   250-315   250-315   250-315자격증   250-315자격증   250-315

NO.19 Which two objects in the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager console describe the most granular
level to which a policy can be applied? (Select two.)
A. Site
B. Domain
C. Group
D. Location
E. Computer
F. User
Answer: C,D

Symantec자격증   250-315시험문제   250-315덤프   250-315 dump   250-315

NO.20 A financial company has a security policy that prevents banking system workstations from connecting to
the internet. Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 protection technology will be prevented from
working on the company's workstations?
A. Insight
B. Application and Device Control
C. Network Threat Protection
D. LiveUpdate
Answer: A

Symantec시험문제   250-315 dump   250-315 dumps   250-315 pdf   250-315   250-315

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